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Value at Risk & Expected Shortfall

The loss you should not exceed at a chosen confidence, three ways - historical, Normal, and skew/kurtosis-adjusted - plus the Expected Shortfall beyond it and a Kupiec test of whether the historical figure held up.

What it needs

The intuition

Value at Risk answers one narrow question: on a bad day, how bad? The 99% one-day VaR is the loss that only the worst 1% of days exceed. It is a quantile of the return distribution and nothing more. Expected shortfall answers the question VaR dodges - GIVEN that you are in that worst 1%, how much do you actually lose on average - and that difference is the whole reason regulators moved to it.

When to use it

Risk reporting and limits, regulatory capital, comparing the tail risk of strategies, or demonstrating why a Normal assumption understates risk for real financial returns.

Where the estimator comes from

For loss L=-R, VaR at level \alpha is the quantile \mathrm{VaR}_\alpha=\inf\{l: P(L\le l)\ge\alpha\}. Expected shortfall is the mean beyond it, \mathrm{ES}_\alpha=E[L\mid L\ge \mathrm{VaR}_\alpha]. Three estimators are in common use. HISTORICAL simply takes the empirical quantile of past returns and assumes no distribution. PARAMETRIC-NORMAL sets \mathrm{VaR}_\alpha=-(\mu+z_\alpha\sigma) with z_{0.99}=-2.326, which is fast and wrong in the tails. The STUDENT-t version replaces z with a t quantile scaled by \sqrt{(\nu-2)/\nu} so the variance still matches \sigma^2; with \nu around 4 to 6, which is typical for daily equity returns, this widens the 99% figure by roughly 15 to 25% against the Normal.

The model

\text{VaR}_{\alpha} = -\,Q_{1-\alpha}(r),\qquad \text{ES}_{\alpha} = -\,\mathbb{E}[\,r \mid r \le Q_{1-\alpha}(r)\,]

What it assumes

Statistical properties

How to read the output

A worked reading

99% VaR on 180 monthly returns of a 1,000,000 portfolio: 13.151% historical (131,515), 14.317% Gaussian (143,167) and 14.438% Cornish-Fisher. Expected shortfall is 15.056% historical and 16.510% Gaussian - between 14% and 15% above the corresponding VaR, which is the point of reporting it: on the months the limit is breached, the average loss is well beyond the limit, and VaR alone never says by how much. Now notice what this sample does NOT show. The textbook warning is that the Normal understates the tail, and here it does the opposite - the Gaussian figure is ABOVE the historical one. The reason is in the summary line: excess kurtosis is only 0.239 and skewness 0.049, so these returns are close to Normal and the historical estimate, resting on the handful of worst months actually observed, happens to be the milder of the two. The lesson is the general one rather than the slogan: which method is conservative depends on the data in front of you, so quote all three and look at the kurtosis before deciding which to believe.

Symptom → diagnosis → what to do

If you see thisIt meansDo this
Normal and historical VaR differ sharplyFat tailsTrust the historical or t figure; report the gap
Zero breaches in a long backtestOver-conservative, not safeKupiec test. Capital is being wasted
Breaches arrive in clustersVolatility clustering unmodelledUse a GARCH-based conditional VaR
ES barely exceeds VaRThin tail, or too few tail observationsCheck the sample size beyond the quantile
VaR jumps when one old date drops outHistorical estimator dominated by one eventThe window is too short for this confidence level
Portfolio VaR above the sum of the partsNon-sub-additivity, a known defectReport expected shortfall as well

Common mistakes

Where to read this properly

See also

GARCH, for conditional volatility that makes VaR responsive. Performance ratios, for the return side of the same trade-off.

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